Prepare for the JST exam with top Biology MCQs covering key topics for Junior Science Teacher recruitment. Boost your ETEA and STS test scores with focused practice.
Aerobic Bacteria
Q.10 Penicillin is obtained from:
(a) Penicillium notatum
(b) Aspergillus fumigatus
(c) Aspergillus flavus
(d) Penicillium chrysogenum
Q.11 Which of the following components is less resistant to decay?
(a) Lignin
(b) Chitin
(c) Starch
(d) Cellulose
Q.12 ___ are bioindicators of air pollution.
(a) Cyanobacteria
(b) Mycorrhiza
(c) Fungi
(d) Lichens
Q.13 Name the enveloped RNA virus that causes infusion hepatitis.
(a) HBV
(b) HCV
(c) HAV
(d) None of these
Q.14 In general, asexual reproduction is common in
(a) Humans
(b) Deuteromycota
(c) Basidiomycota
(d) None of these
Q.15 Which of the following are spiral-shaped bacteria?
(a) Cocci
(b) Pseudomonas
(c) Bacilli
(d) Vibrio
Q.16 Which of the following is used for lowering blood cholesterol?
(a) Neurospora
(b) Aspergillus
(c) Lovastatin
(d) None of these
Q.17 Herpes simplex is caused by
(a) Enveloped RNA
(b) Glycogen
(c) RNA tumor
(d) Virus
Q.18 Name the cyanobacteria which are helpful in fixing atmospheric nitrogen.
(a) Heterocysts
(b) Akinetes
(c) Hormogonia
(d) None of these
Q.19 Name the one involved in DNA replication
(a) Cysts
(b) Ribosomes
(c) Mesosomes
(d) Spores
Q.20 Which of the following has rootless sporophyte?
(a) Psilopsida
(b) Lycopsida
(c) Tracheophyta
(d) Sphenopsida
Q.21 Which one of the following diseases caused by enveloped RNA virus and spread in epidemic form?
(a) Influenza
(b) Polio
(c) Herpes Simplex
(d) Small Pox
Q.22 ___ which contains the gene for drug resistance bacteria are
(a) Nucleoids
(b) Chromatin Bodies
(c) Mesosomes
(d) Plasmids
Q.23 Antibiotics that kill microbes immediately are called
(a) Microbiostatic
(b) Biostatic
(c) Chemotherapeutic
(d) Microbicidal
Q.24 Which one of the following fungi causes vaginal thrush?
(a) Candida
(b) Torula
(c) Aspergillus
(d) Penicillium
Q.25 In HIV viruses, reverse transcriptase converts single-stranded RNA into double stranded viral DNA. This process is called
(a) Translation
(b) Replication
(c) Duplication
(d) Reverse Transcriptase
Microbiology
Q.1 The first microbe to have the genome completely sequenced and was published on July 28th, 1995 was
(a) Hyphomicrobium
(b) Haemophilus malariae
(c) Haemophilus influenzae
(d) None of these
Q.2 Chemically, viruses are made up of
(a) Nucleic acid only
(b) Nucleic acid and protein
(c) Protein only
(d) None of these
Q.3 Widespread epidemic disease, influenza is caused by
(a) DNA virus
(b) RNA enveloped virus
(c) RNA enveloped virus
(d) RNA virus
Q.4 When the division of cells is in three planes, the arrangement is known as
(a) Diplococcus
(b) Streptococcus
(c) Sarcina
(d) Staphylococcus
Q.5 Bacterial ‘death rate’ is equal to ‘birth rate; in
(a) Lag phase
(b) Death phase
(c) Log phase
(d) Stationary phase
Q.6 Symptoms of Herpes Simplex is:
(a) Abdominal Pain
(b) Vesicular lesions in the epithelial layer
(c) Fever
(d) Failure of immune system
Q.7 The major cell infected by the HIV is:
(a) Leucocyte
(b) Helper T-lymphocyte
(c) Monocyte
(d) B-lymphocyte
Q.8 Which of the following is aerobic bacterium?
(a) Spirochete
(b) E. coli
(c) Cyanobacteria
(d) Pseudomonas
Q.9 The giant amoebas inhabit mud at the bottom of fresh water ponds and obtain energy from:
(a) Microscopic bacteria
(b) Anaerobic bacteria
(c) None of these
Biological Molecules
Q.46 The competitive inhibitors have structural similarity with
(a) Active site
(b) Substrate
(c) Binding site
(d) Co-enzyme
Q.47 Which one of the following is the optimum pH of pancreatic lipase enzyme?
(a) 7.60
(b) 9.00
(c) 8.00
(d) None of these
Q.48 A co-factor tightly bound to the enzyme on a permanent basis is called
(a) Activator
(b) Prosthetic group
(c) Co-enzyme
(d) Apo-enzyme
Q.49 Monosaccharides are major components of:
(a) DNA, ATP, Ribulose bisphosphate and Cysteine
(b) DNA, NAD and Insulin
(c) DNA, NADP, ATP and Ribulose bisphosphate
(d) DNA, RNA and Myosin
Q.50 Blood group antigens contains:
(a) Glycoproteins
(b) Glycolipids
(c) Phospholipids
(d) Sphingolipids
Q.30 If the detachable co-factor is an inorganic ion then it is designated as
(a) Coenzyme
(b) Holoenzyme
(c) Activator
(d) None of these
Q.31 ___ is most abundant carbohydrate in nature.
(a) Waxes
(b) Starch
(c) Glucose
(d) Cellulose
Q.32 Which of the following is a keto sugar:
(a) Glyceraldehyde
(b) Ribose
(c) Dihydroxy-acetone
(d) Glucose
Q.33 Amino acid in which the R-group is hydrogen is
(a) Glycine
(b) Leucine
(c) Alanine
(d) Valine
Q.34 Acyl-glycerols like fats and oils are esters formed by condensation reaction between:
(a) Fatty acids and water
(b) Fatty acids and glucose
(c) Fatty acids and alcohols
(d) Fatty acids and phosphates
Q.35 Which of the following is purine:
(a) Guanine
(b) Thymine
(c) Cytosine
(d) Uracil
Q.36 If the co-factor is covalently or tightly and permanently bonded to enzyme then it will be called:
(a) Prosthetic group
(b) Activator
(c) Coenzyme
(d) Apoenzyme
Q.37 Optimum pH value for the working of pancreatic lipase is:
(a) 4.50
(b) 2.00
(c) 9.00
(d) None of these
Q.38 The view that active site of an enzyme is flexible and when a substrate combines with it, cause changes in enzyme structure is known as:
(a) Lock & key model
(b) Sliding filament model
(c) Specificity model
(d) None of these
Q.39 All coenzymes are derived from:
(a) Proteins
(b) Vitamins
(c) Nucleic acids
(d) Minerals
Q.40 The most common respiratory substrate as a source of energy is
(a) Glucose
(b) Fructose
(c) Sucrose
(d) Insulin
Q.41 The simplest monosaccharide containing keto group is
(a) Glyceraldehyde
(b) Dihydroxy acetone
(c) Glucose
(d) Ribose
Q.42 If the genetic code is made up of three nucleotides, then total possible genetic codes will be
(a) 4
(b) 64
(c) 20
(d) 61
Q.43 Waterproof surfaces like cuticle of leaf and protective covering of an insect’s body are
(a) Phospholipids
(b) Waxes
(c) Terpenoids
(d) Acyl glycerols
Q.44 In translation the terminating codon is
(a) GUA
(b) UAA
(c) AUG
(d) AGU
Q.45 All co-enzymes are derived from
(a) Proteins
(b) Metal ions
(c) None of these
Q.16 Fatty acid are the organic compounds containing hydrogen, oxygen and one of the following are
(a) -COOH
(b) -NH2
(c) Acyl
(d) Sucrose
Q.17 The combination of a pentose sugar with a base result in a compound is known as
(a) Nucleotide
(b) Nucleic Acid
(c) Nucleoside
(d) Polynucleotide
Q.18 An enzyme and substrate reacts through a special feature or site present in enzyme:
(a) Building Site
(b) Catalyst Site
(c) Active Site
(d) Inhibition Site
Q.19 The non-protein part of enzyme which is covalently and permanently bonded is called
(a) Prosthetic Group
(b) Co-Enzyme
(c) Activator
(d) None of these
Q.20 One of the pyrimidine bases is absent in RNA
(a) Uracil
(b) Thymine
(c) Cytosine
(d) Adenine
Q.21 Enzymes increase the rate of reaction by
(a) Increasing Temperature
(b) Decreasing Activation Energy
(c) Decreasing pH
(d) Increasing Activation Energy
Q.22 Carbohydrates are organic molecules and contain three elements
(a) Carbon, water and oxygen
(b) Carbon, calcium and hydrogen
(c) Carbon, Sulphur and hydrogen
(d) Carbon, hydrogen and oxygen
Q.23 Which one are intermediates in respiration
(a) Ribose and heptulose
(b) Glyceraldehyde and dihydroxyacetone
(c) Glucose and galactose
(d) Fructose and ribulose
Q.24 Which of the following is a peptide bond?
(a) C-N
(b) C-O
(c) C-C
(d) C-H
Q.25 Which of the following is an unsaturated fatty acid?
(a) Acetic Acid
(b) Butyric acid
(c) Oleic acid
(d) Palmitic acid
Q.26 Which of the following combination of base pair is absent in DNA?
(a) A-T
(b) C-G
(c) A-U
(d) T-A
Q.27 The type of inhibition in which inhibitor has no structural similarity to substrate and combines with enzyme at other than the active site is called
(a) Irreversible inhibition
(b) Non-competitive and reversible inhibition
(c) Competitive inhibition
(d) Reversible inhibition
Q.28 The inhibitors that bind tightly and permanently to enzymes and destroy their globular structure and catalytic activity are
(a) Reversible inhibitors
(b) Competitive inhibitors
(c) Irreversible inhibitors
(d) Non-competitive inhibitors
Q.29 Enzyme succinate dehydrogenase converts succinate into
(a) Malate
(b) Citrate
(c) None of these